Glossary entry

Spanish term or phrase:

Renunciando

English translation:

waiving

Added to glossary by Henry Hinds
Jun 18, 2012 14:04
12 yrs ago
14 viewers *
Spanish term

Renunciando

Spanish to English Law/Patents Real Estate Mexican deed
I am asking this question not because I don't understand "renunciando" but because I want to make sure that my use of "thereby" in this context is correct.

Original: Octava.- Para la interpretación y cumplimiento de este contrato, así como para la decisión sobre cualquier controversia que llegare a suscitarse con motivo del mismo, las partes se someten única y exclusivamente a las leyes y tribunales competentes de la ciudad de xyz, xyz, renunciando a cualquier otro fuero que por razón de su domicilio presente o futuro pudiera corresponderles.

My translation: EIGHT.- JURISDICTION.- FOR THE INTERPRETATION AND FULFILLMENT HEREOF AND TO DECIDE ON ANY CONTROVERSY THAT MAY ARISE AS A RESULT OF THEREOF, THE PARTIES SOLELY AND EXCLUSIVELY SUBJECT THEMSELVES TO THE LAWS AND COURTS HAVING JURISDICTION OF THE CITY OF xyz, xyz, THEREBY WAIVING ANY OTHER JURISDICTION TO WHICH THEY MAY BE ENTITLED DUE TO THEIR PRESENT OR FUTURE DOMICILES.
Proposed translations (English)
5 +5 waiving
Change log

Jun 23, 2012 15:58: Henry Hinds Created KOG entry

Discussion

Jessica Noyes Jun 19, 2012:
Hi Reed (and by the way I have appreciated your posted glossaries greatly), I would have to go dig up a grammar textbook to explain why it is right just as it, but it is a common enough sentence pattern -- "She goes hiking alone, leaving her husband to watch the children," springs to mind. "Thereby" has a meaning, and I am not seeing it underlying the meaning of your sentence. The way I read Henry's answer is that he also is not including "thereby," but he does not explicitly say so. I appreciate your continuing the conversation in such an open fashion.
Reed James (asker) Jun 18, 2012:
Thanks for pointing out the extra "of", Jessica. Why do you think the "thereby" implies a connection not in the contract? I feel like "waiving" after the comma is just kind of dangling there in English.
Reed James (asker) Jun 18, 2012:
Hi Phil,

Thanks for pointing that out. If you do a Google search, you will find "jurisdiction of". Look at this U.S. government page: http://www.uspto.gov/web/offices/pac/mpep/documents/0700_705... The Wiley's Spanish-English law dictionary says that "controversia" is controversy. I agree that it could be a dispute, but why is it necessarily not "good English"? Why did you arrive at that conclusion? I used all caps because the source document uses all caps.
philgoddard Jun 18, 2012:
Thereby is fine, but there are a couple of other mistakes. "Having jurisdiction of" is not good English - we would say "in" or "over". "Controversia" is not "controversy," but "dispute". And why are you using capital letters?
Jessica Noyes Jun 18, 2012:
Good question. I think using "thereby" is unnecessary and implies a connection that is not in the contract. BTW, you have an extra "of" before "thereof."
David Hollywood Jun 18, 2012:
I think your "thereby" is fine in the context

Proposed translations

+5
6 mins
Selected

waiving

But I would use "this contract" for "hereof" and "hereof" for "thereof". It needs to be consistent.
Note from asker:
Hi Henry. I'm awarding you the points based on your correction of "thereof" to "hereof". I contacted an attorney, and he said that the sentence could be worded with or without the "thereby".
Peer comment(s):

agree Jessica Noyes : Yes
1 hr
Gracias, Jessica.
agree Edward Tully
2 hrs
Gracias, Ed.
agree Al Zaid
3 hrs
Gracias, Alberto.
agree claudia bagnardi
7 hrs
Gracias, Claudia.
agree ertraducciones
11 hrs
Gracias, Ernesto.
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3 KudoZ points awarded for this answer.

Reference comments

8 mins
Reference:

acceptable

I think is acceptable that you add "thereby" eventhough is not in the source sentence, because it does make it more understandable
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